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Medical Council of Canada MCCQE Part 1 Exam Sample Questions (Q153-Q158):

NEW QUESTION # 153
A 45-year-old man presents to your clinic for follow-up regarding his obsessive-compulsive disorder. He currently takes a high dosage of paroxetine, which he would like to discontinue because he feels well. His condition has been stable taking this medication since he was discharged from inpatient care 2 years ago.
Which one of the following is the most appropriate recommendation?

Answer: C

Explanation:
Obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD) is a chronic and often relapsing condition. MCCQE objectives emphasize that patients with severe OCD requiring hospitalization or prolonged high-dose SSRI therapy are at significant risk of relapse if medication is discontinued. This patient has remained stable for 2 years on a high dose of paroxetine after inpatient treatment, suggesting a history of more severe disease.
For moderate-to-severe or recurrent OCD, long-term or indefinite maintenance pharmacotherapy is often recommended, particularly when the patient has responded well and tolerated the medication. Abrupt discontinuation or large dose reductions (e.g., 50%) increase the risk of relapse and discontinuation syndrome, especially with paroxetine, which has a short half-life. Switching to another SSRI is unnecessary when the current medication is effective and tolerated. Supportive psychotherapy alone is generally insufficient for patients with previously severe OCD.
Therefore, the most appropriate recommendation is to maintain the current dosage , while discussing risks and benefits and reassessing periodically.


NEW QUESTION # 154
Three months ago, a physician colleague approached you in the hospital corridor for advice regarding one of his patients. You are now being named by this patient in a malpractice action. Which one of the following is the most likely reason why you may be found liable?

Answer: E

Explanation:
Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation:
Providing clinical advice (particularly treatment advice) without formally seeing or evaluating the patient creates a physician-patient relationship, potentially establishing a duty of care. If the advice leads to harm, you could be found liable, even if you never saw the patient directly.
Toronto Notes 2023 - Legal Medicine:
"Giving specific medical advice about diagnosis or treatment may imply a physician-patient relationship and establish duty of care." MCCQE1 Objectives (ELOM > 90-2: Legal Risk Management):
"Candidates must understand that liability can arise from informal consultations where medical advice is given." Providing advice (D) is riskier than simply hearing about a case or patient (A, C). Recommending consultation (B) does not establish duty of care. Not seeing the patient (E) does not automatically shield from liability if treatment advice was given.
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NEW QUESTION # 155
A 26-year-old man presents to the office with a tender mass in his right neck. He was recently treated for a dental infection but is otherwise well. On examination, there is a 2-cm tender, mobile lymph node in the right anterior cervical chain. No other lymphadenopathy or abnormalities are found on physical examination.
Which one of the following is the best next step?

Answer: C

Explanation:
A tender, mobile lymph node following a recent localized infection (e.g., dental infection) is most likely reactive. In a young, otherwise well patient with no systemic symptoms or concerning features, observation is appropriate.
Toronto Notes 2023 - Internal Medicine, Lymphadenopathy:
"In patients with localized lymphadenopathy and a recent infection, observation for 4-8 weeks is often appropriate before further investigation." MCCQE1 Objectives - Internal Medicine > Hematology:
"Candidates should recognize benign features of lymphadenopathy (tender, mobile, <2 cm, localized) and manage conservatively unless red flags are present." Biopsy (B) and imaging (C, E) are premature. Bone marrow biopsy (D) is not relevant.


NEW QUESTION # 156
A 16-year-old boy is brought to the office for examination, which reveals the lesion in the attached image and similar lesions on other parts of his body. You also notice multiple scattered subcutaneous tumors that he says have been there for a long time. Which one of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

Answer: E

Explanation:
The presence of multiple cutaneous lesions along with numerous longstanding subcutaneous tumors is most consistent with neurofibromatosis type 1 (NF1) . MCCQE objectives emphasize recognizing classic dermatologic findings of NF1, which include multiple neurofibromas (soft, skin-colored subcutaneous nodules) and characteristic pigmented lesions such as cafe-au-lait macules and axillary or inguinal freckling.
These lesions typically develop during childhood or adolescence and increase in number over time.
Sarcoidosis can cause skin lesions but is not associated with multiple benign peripheral nerve sheath tumors.
Dermatofibromas are usually solitary, firm nodules rather than numerous soft tumors. Vitiligo presents as depigmented macules without subcutaneous masses. Lipomatosis involves multiple lipomas but lacks the associated pigmentary skin findings seen in NF1.
NF1 is an autosomal dominant condition caused by mutation of the NF1 gene. Diagnosis is clinical based on established criteria. Recognition is important because patients require surveillance for complications such as optic gliomas, learning disabilities, skeletal abnormalities, and malignant peripheral nerve sheath tumors.


NEW QUESTION # 157
A 42-year-old businessman known to have type 2 diabetes and ischemic heart disease is admitted to hospital with acute coronary syndrome. He admits to drinking 4 beers a day for the last 6 years and to binge drinking twice a year when his school buddies are in town. Your chart review reveals that he had a seizure secondary to alcohol withdrawal during his last admission. Which one of the following elements of his history puts him at highest risk of having another such seizure?

Answer: A

Explanation:
A history of previous alcohol withdrawal seizures is the single greatest predictor of future withdrawal seizures. This establishes a sensitization response within the central nervous system.
Toronto Notes 2023 - Addiction Medicine:
"A prior history of alcohol withdrawal seizures is the most important risk factor for recurrent seizures during future withdrawal episodes." MCCQE1 Objectives (Internal Medicine > Substance Use > 58-3):
"Candidates must identify individuals at high risk for severe alcohol withdrawal based on past withdrawal history, including seizures and delirium tremens." Although quantity, duration, and comorbidities contribute to risk, a prior withdrawal seizure most strongly predicts recurrence.


NEW QUESTION # 158
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